asked 2014-12-09 18:45:23 +0200
For intra-EU purchases made between VAT-registered parties, the selling party must deduct the VAT from the amount paid, according to the VIES (Vat Information Exchange System) currently in force within EU. The shop, though, does not do this. Can this be implemented, and the VAT paid for past orders recovered?
answered 2014-12-10 08:06:46 +0200
I think you are applying a wrong part of the law. Individuals are normaly not "VAT registered parties". See also http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/European_Union_value_added_tax#Distance_sales for explanation of the VAT rules which apply to the eshops.
If the aggregate value of Jolla stuff sold to your country exceeded the 100k EUR in any 12 consecutive monts, then Jolla should apply for the VAT registration in your country and the price in your country should include the VAT applicable there.
Importantly, laws are very rarely retroactive, so if you bought your phone under some circumstances, only these matter for the decision where and how high VAT needs to be paid.
I am not a lawyer but this is how I do understand the rule.
Individuals are not, but companies are. I am talking about corporate purchases.
Giacomo Di Giacomo ( 2014-12-10 10:38:04 +0200 )editAsked: 2014-12-09 18:45:23 +0200
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Last updated: Dec 10 '14
